Community Health Assessment 1

 

1) **********minimum 4 full pages**************************** (cover, table appendix page or reference page not included) 

2)¨**********APA norms 

3)********** It will be verified by Turnitin and SafeAssign 

4) **********References from the last 5 years   

5) The points don’t be must copied in the work. It must be identified by numbers. 

For example

1. The Community is…………………………..

2.  Community health status is………………………..

______________________________________________________

 

Community Health Assessment / Windshield Survey

Community Assessment

A community health assessment (sometimes called a CHA), also known as community health needs assessment (sometimes called a CHNA), refers to a state, tribal, local, or territorial health assessment that identifies key health needs and issues through systematic, comprehensive data collection and analysis. 

  

GUIDELINES:

(Select 1 City of USA)

1.  Community description (City and population) 

2. Community health status (must obtain from the department of health).

3. The role of the community as a client.

4. Healthy people 2020, lading health indictors in your community.

5. Conclusion.

Also, you must present a table as an appendix page with the following topics and description;

Housing

Transportation

Race and ethnicity

Open space

Service centers

Religion and politics

WE ALL KNOW CLASSWORK IS BORING. THUS, OUR ESSAY HELP SERVICE EXISTS TO HELP STUDENTS WHO ARE OVERWHELMED WITH STUDIES. ORDER YOUR CUSTOM PAPER FOR 20% DISCOUNT. USE CODE SAVE20

South University NSG5003 Final Exam 2019

 

Question 1 (5 points)

Which component of the cell produces hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) by using oxygen to remove hydrogen atoms from specific substrates in an oxidative reaction?

Question 1 options:

Lysosomes

Peroxisomes

Ribosomes

Oxyhydrosomes

Question 2 (5 points)

What is a consequence of plasma membrane damage to the mitochondria?

Question 2 options:

Enzymatic digestion halts deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) synthesis.

Influx of calcium ions halts adenosine triphosphate (ATP) production.

Edema from an influx in sodium causes a reduction in ATP production.

Potassium shifts out of the mitochondria, which destroys the infrastructure.

Question 3 (5 points)

Which statement is a description of one of the characteristics of apoptosis?

Question 3 options:

Apoptosis involves programmed cell death of scattered single cells.

Apoptosis is characterized by the swelling of the nucleus and the cytoplasm.

Apoptosis involves unpredictable patterns of cell death.

Apoptosis results in benign malignancies.

Question 4 (5 points)

During cell injury caused by hypoxia, sodium and water move into the cell because:

Question 4 options:

During cell injury caused by hypoxia, sodium and water move into the cell because:

The pump that transports sodium out of the cell cannot function because of a decrease in adenosine triphosphate (ATP) levels.

The osmotic pressure is increased, which pulls additional sodium across the cell membrane

Oxygen is not available to bind with sodium to maintain it outside of the cell.

Question 5 (5 points)

What is an effect of ionizing radiation exposure?

Question 5 options:

Respiratory distress

Sun intolerance

Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) aberrations

Death(not confirm)

Question 6 (5 points)

Obesity creates a greater risk for dehydration in people because:

Question 6 options: chapter 3 q.2

Adipose cells contain little water because fat is water repelling.

The metabolic rates of obese adults are slower than those of lean adults.

The rates of urine output of obese adults are higher than those of lean adults.

The thirst receptors of the hypothalamus do not function effectively.

Question 7 (5 points)

In addition to osmosis, what force is involved in the movement of water between the plasma and interstitial fluid spaces?

Question 7 options:

a)Oncotic pressure

b)Buffering

c)Net filtration

d)Hydrostatic pressure

Question 8 (5 points)
Venous obstruction is a cause of edema because of an increase in which pressure?

Question 8 options:

a)Capillary hydrostatic

b)Interstitial hydrostatic

c)Capillary oncotic

d)Interstitial oncotic

Question 9 (5 points)

At the arterial end of capillaries, fluid moves from the intravascular space into the interstitial space because:

Question 9 options:

a)The interstitial hydrostatic pressure is higher than the capillary hydrostatic pressure.

b)The capillary hydrostatic pressure is higher than the capillary oncotic pressure.

c)The interstitial oncotic pressure is higher than the interstitial hydrostatic pressure.

d)The capillary oncotic pressure is lower than the interstitial hydrostatic pressure.

Question 10 (5 points)

It is true that natriuretic peptides:

Question 10 options:

a)Decrease blood pressure and increase sodium and water excretion.

b)Increase blood pressure and decrease sodium and water excretion.

c)Increase the heart rate and decrease potassium excretion.

d)Decrease the heart rate and increase potassium excretion.

Question 11 (5 points)

What causes the clinical manifestations of confusion, convulsions, cerebral hemorrhage, and coma in hypernatremia?

Question 11 options:

a)High sodium in the blood vessels pulls water out of the brain cells into the blood vessels, causing brain cells to shrink.

b)High sodium in the brain cells pulls water out of the blood vessels into the brain cells, causing them to swell.

c)High sodium in the blood vessels pulls potassium out of the brain cells, which slows the synapses in the brain.

d)High sodium in the blood vessels draws chloride into the brain cells followed by water, causing the brain cells to swell.

Question 12 (5 points)

A major determinant of the resting membrane potential necessary for the transmission of nerve impulses is the ratio between:

Question 12 options:

a)Intracellular and extracellular Na+

b)Intracellular and extracellular K+

c)Intracellular Na+ and extracellular K+

d)Intracellular K+ and extracellular Na+

Question 13 (5 points)

In hyperkalemia, what change occurs to the cells’ resting membrane potential?

Question 13 options:

a)Hypopolarization

b)Hyperexcitability

c)Depolarization

d)Repolarization

Question 14 (5 points)

Physiologic pH is maintained at approximately 7.4 because bicarbonate (HCO3) and carbonic acid (H2CO3) exist in a ratio of:

Question 14 options:

a)20:1

b)1:20

c)10:2

d)10:5

Question 15 (5 points)

Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure results in edema because of:

Question 15 options:

a)Losses or diminished production of plasma albumin

b)Inflammation resulting from an immune response

c)Blockage within the lymphatic channel system

d)Sodium and water retention

Question 16 (5 points)

Hypomethylation and the resulting effect on oncogenes result in:

Question 16 options:

a)A decrease in the activity of the oncogene, thus suppressing cancer development

b)Deactivation of MLH1 to halt deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) repair

c)An increase in tumor progression from benign to malignant

d)Overexpression of micro-ribonucleic acid (miRNA), resulting in tumorigenesis

Question 17 (5 points)

The functions of the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) and CD1 molecules are alike because both:

Question 17 options:

a)Are antigen-presenting molecules

b)Bind antigens to antibodies

c)Secrete interleukins (ILs) during the immune process

d)Are capable of activating cytotoxic T lymphocytes

Question 18 (5 points)

The B-cell receptor (BCR) complex functions uniquely by:

Question 18 options:

a)Communicating information about the antigen to the helper T (Th) cell

b)Secreting chemical signals to help cells communicate

c)Recognizing the antigen on the surface of the B lymphocyte

d)Communicating information about the antigen to the cell nucleus

Question 19 (5 points)

The generation of clonal diversity includes a process that:

Question 19 options:

a)Involves antigens that select lymphocytes with compatible receptors

b)Allows the differentiation of cells into antibody-secreting plasma cells or mature T cells

c)Takes place in the primary (central) lymphoid organs

d)Causes antigens to expand and diversify their populations

Save

Question 20 (5 points)

Vaccinations are able to provide protection against certain microorganisms because of the:

Question 20 options:

a)Strong response from immunoglobulin M (IgM)

b)Level of protection provided by immunoglobulin G (IgG)

c)Memory cells for immunoglobulin E (IgE)

d)Rapid response from immunoglobulin A (IgA)

Question 21 (5 points)

What is the mechanism that results in type II hypersensitivity reactions?

Question 21 options:

a)Antibodies coat mast cells by binding to receptors that signal its degranulation, followed by a discharge of preformed mediators.

b)Antibodies bind to soluble antigens that were released into body fluids, and the immune complexes are then deposited in the tissues.

c)Cytotoxic T (Tc) lymphocytes or lymphokine-producing helper T 1 (Th1) cells directly attack and destroy cellular targets.

d)Antibodies bind to the antigens on the cell surface.

Question 22 (5 points)

When soluble antigens from infectious agents enter circulation, tissue damage is a result of:

Question 22 options:

a)Complement-mediated cell lysis

b)Phagocytosis by macrophages

c)Phagocytosis in the spleen

d)Neutrophil granules and toxic oxygen products

Question 23 (5 points)

Considering the hypothalamus, a fever is produced by:

Question 23 options:

a)Endogenous pyrogens acting directly on the hypothalamus

b)Exogenous pyrogens acting directly on the hypothalamus

c)Immune complexes acting indirectly on the hypothalamus

d)Cytokines acting indirectly on the hypothalamus

Question 24 (5 points)

Vaccines against viruses are created from:

Question 24 options:

a)Killed organisms or extracts of antigens

b)Live organisms weakened to produce antigens

c)Purified toxins that have been chemically detoxified

d)Recombinant pathogenic protein

Question 25 (5 points)

Carcinoma in situ is characterized by which changes?

Question 25 options:

a)Cells have broken through the local basement membrane.

b)Cells have invaded immediate surrounding tissue.

c)Cells remain localized in the glandular or squamous cells

d)Cellular and tissue alterations indicate dysplasia.

Question 26 (5 points)

Two “hits” are required to inactivate tumor-suppressor genes because:

Question 26 options:

a)Each allele must be altered and each person has two copies, or alleles, of each gene, one from each parent.

b)The first hit stops tissue growth and the second hit is needed to cause abnormal tissue growth.

c)Tumor-suppressor genes are larger than proto-oncogenes, requiring two hits to effect carcinogenesis.

d)The first hit is insufficient to cause enough damage to cause a mutation.

Question 27 (5 points)

What is the skin-related health risk induced by some types of chemotherapy?

Question 27 options:

a)Infection

b)Ultraviolet damage

c)Pain

d)Erythema

Question 28 (5 points)

When a child is diagnosed with cancer, which intervention has the greatest influence on the child’s mortality rate?

Question 28 options:

a)Age at the time of diagnosis

b)Participation in clinical trials

c)Proximity to a major cancer treatment center

d)Parental involvement in the treatment planning

Question 29 (5 points)

Reflex activities concerned with the heart rate, blood pressure, respirations, sneezing, swallowing, and coughing are controlled by which area of the brain?

Question 29 options:

a)Pons

b)Midbrain

c)Cerebellum

d)Medulla oblongata

Question 30 (5 points)

The edema of the upper cervical cord after a spinal cord injury is considered life threatening because of which possible outcome?

Question 30 options:

a)Hypovolemic shock from blood lost during the injury

b)Breathing difficulties from an impairment to the diaphragm

c)Head injury that likely occurred during the injury

d)Spinal shock immediately after the injury

Question 31 (5 points)

What term is used to describe the complication that can result from a spinal cord injury above T6 that is producing paroxysmal hypertension, as well as piloerection and sweating above the spinal cord lesion?

Question 31 options:

a)Craniosacral dysreflexia

b)Parasympathetic dysreflexia

c)Autonomic hyperreflexia

d)Retrograde hyperreflexia

Save

Question 32 (5 points)

Atheromatous plaques are most commonly found:

Question 32 options:

a)In larger veins

b)Near capillary sphincters

c)At branches of arteries

d)On the venous sinuses

Question 33 (5 points)

Multiple sclerosis is best described as:

Question 33 options:

a)A CNS demyelination, possibly from an immunogenetic virus

b)Inadequate supply of acetylcholine at the neurotransmitter junction as a result of an autoimmune disorder

c)The depletion of dopamine in the CNS as a result of a virus

d)A degenerative disorder of lower and upper motor neurons caused by viral-immune factors

Question 34 (5 points)

Graves disease develops from:

Question 34 options:

a)A viral infection of the thyroid gland that causes overproduction of thyroid hormone

b)An autoimmune process during which lymphocytes and fibrous tissue replace thyroid tissue

c)Thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin, which causes overproduction of thyroid hormones

d)Ingestion of goitrogens, which inhibits the synthesis of the thyroid hormones, causing goiter

Question 35 (5 points)

Pathologic changes associated with Graves disease include:

Question 35 options:

a)High levels of circulating thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins

b)Diminished levels of TRH

c)High levels of TSH

d)Diminished levels of thyroid-binding globulin

Question 36 (5 points)

A patient diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) has the following laboratory values: arterial pH 7.20, serum glucose 500 mg/dl, positive urine glucose and ketones, serum potassium (K+) 2 mEq/L, and serum sodium (Na+) 130 mEq/L. The patient
reports that he has been sick with the “flu” for a week. What relationship do these values have to his insulin deficiency?

Question 36 options:

a)Increased glucose use causes the shift of fluid from the intravascular to the intracellular space.

b)Decreased glucose use causes fatty acid use, ketogenesis, metabolic acidosis, and osmotic diuresi

c)Increased glucose and fatty acids stimulate renal diuresis, electrolyte loss, and metabolic alkalosis.

d)Decreased glucose use results in protein catabolism, tissue wasting, respiratory acidosis, and electrolyte loss.

Question 37 (5 points)

Type 2 diabetes mellitus is best described as:

Question 37 options:

a)Resistance to insulin by insulin-sensitive tissues

b)The need for lispro instead of regular insulin

c)An increase in glucagon secretion from α cells of the pancreas

d)The presence of insulin autoantibodies that destroy β cells in the pancreas

Question 38 (5 points)

The common hay fever allergy is expressed through a reaction that is mediated by which class of immunoglobulins?

Question 38 options:

a)Immunoglobulin E (IgE)

b)Immunoglobulin G (IgG)

c)Immunoglobulin M (IgM)

d)T cells

Question 39 (5 points)

A person diagnosed with type 1 diabetes experiences hunger, lightheadedness, tachycardia, pallor, headache, and confusion. The most probable cause of these symptoms is:

Question 39 options:

a)Hyperglycemia caused by incorrect insulin administration

b)The dawn phenomenon from eating a snack before bedtime

c)Hypoglycemia caused by increased exercise

d)Somogyi effect from insulin sensitivity

Question 40 (5 points)

Hypoglycemia, followed by rebound hyperglycemia, is observed in those with:

Question 40 options:

a)The Somogyi effect

b)The dawn phenomenon

c)Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)

d)Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome

Question 41 (5 points)

Which structure is lined with columnar epithelial cells

Question 41 options:

a)Perimetrium

b)Endocervical canal

c)Myometrium

d)Vagina

Question 42 (5 points)

Where is the usual site of cervical dysplasia or cancer in situ?

Question 42 options:

a)Where the squamous epithelium of the cervix meets the cuboidal epithelium of the vagina

b)Where the columnar epithelium of the cervix meets the squamous epithelium of the uterus

c)Where the squamous epithelium of the cervix meets the columnar epithelium of the uterus

d)Where the columnar epithelium of the cervix meets the squamous epithelium of the vagina

Question 43 (5 points)

Which statement best describes a Schilling test?

Question 43 options:

a)Administration of radioactive cobalamin and the measurement of its excretion in the urine to test for vitamin B12 deficiency

b)Measurement of antigen-antibody immune complexes in the blood to test for hemolytic anemia

c)Measurement of serum ferritin and total iron-binding capacity in the blood to test for iron deficiency anemia

d)Administration of folate and measurement in two hours of its level in a blood sample to test for folic acid deficiency anemia

Question 44 (5 points)

In aplastic anemia (AA), pancytopenia develops as a result of which of the following?

Question 44 options:

a)Suppression of erythropoietin to produce adequate amounts of erythrocytes

b)Suppression of the bone marrow to produce adequate amounts of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes

c)Lack of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) to form sufficient quantities of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes

d)Lack of stem cells to form sufficient quantities of leukocytes

Question 45 (5 points)

Which statement is true regarding warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia?

Question 45 options:

a)Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia occurs primarily in men.

b)It is self-limiting and rarely produces hemolysis.

c)Erythrocytes are bound to macrophages and sequestered in the spleen.

d)Immunoglobulin M (IgM) coats erythrocytes and binds them to receptors on monocytes.

Question 46 (5 points)

Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) can occur if the mother:

Question 46 options:

a)Is Rh-positive and the fetus is Rh-negative

b)Is Rh-negative and the fetus is Rh-positive

c)Has type A blood and the fetus has type O blood

d)Has type AB blood and the fetus has type B blood

Question 47 (5 points)

When diagnosed with hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN), why does the newborn develop hyperbilirubinemia after birth but not in utero?

Question 47 options:

a)Excretion of unconjugated bilirubin through the placenta into the mother’s circulation is no longer possible.

b)Hemoglobin does not break down into bilirubin in the intrauterine environment.

c)The liver of the fetus is too immature to conjugate bilirubin from a lipid-soluble form to a water-soluble form.

d)The destruction of erythrocytes producing bilirubin is greater after birth.

Question 48 (5 points)

How does angiotensin II increase the workload of the heart after a myocardial infarction (MI)?

Question 48 options:

a)By increasing the peripheral vasoconstriction

b)By causing dysrhythmias as a result of hyperkalemia

c)By reducing the contractility of the myocardium

Question 49 (5 points)

What event is a characteristic of the function in Zone I of the lung?

Question 49 options:

a)Blood flow through the pulmonary capillary bed increases in regular increments.

b)Alveolar pressure is greater than venous pressure but not greater than arterial pressure.

c)The capillary bed collapses, and normal blood flow ceases.

d)Blood flows through Zone I, but it is impeded to a certain extent by alveolar pressure.

Question 50 (5 points)

What factor associated with gluten-sensitive enteropathy (celiac sprue) causes an infant to bruise and bleed easily?

Question 50 options:

a)Vitamin K deficiency from fat malabsorption

b)Bone marrow function depression

c)Iron, folate, and B12 deficiency anemias

WE ALL KNOW CLASSWORK IS BORING. THUS, OUR ESSAY HELP SERVICE EXISTS TO HELP STUDENTS WHO ARE OVERWHELMED WITH STUDIES. ORDER YOUR CUSTOM PAPER FOR 20% DISCOUNT. USE CODE SAVE20

Post-Starr

 

Respond to at least two of your    colleagues who were assigned to a different case than you. Explain how    you might apply knowledge gained from your colleagues’ case studies  to   you own practice in clinical settings. 

 

NOTE: Positive comment

                                             Main Post

 Case  Study: Volume 2, Case #21 focuses on the treatment of an adult  client  diagnosed with Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD).   

 

Questions 

Question 1: Are you having problems with your loved one’s due being “argumentative and temperamental”?  

Rationale:  The client may have additional stress due to broken  relationships and  this could be due to his disorder.  “Emotional  dysregulation is  increasingly recognized as a core feature of ADHD”  (Stralen, 2016).  Signs of ADHD include low frustration tolerance and  explosive behavior  (Stralen, 2016).  

Question 2: 

What causes you the most anxiety?

It  is important to determine the triggers of the anxiety to help the   patient prepare for times when he is likely to be in high stress   situations. Planning a response when feeling overwhelmed can help the   patient remain in control of his emotions and allow the patient to   monitor his behavior. 

Question 3: 

You  stated that your father was abusive, was this physical or verbal  abuse  or both? Do you contribute some of your anxiety from previous  issues  with your father? 

It  is important for the provider to understand the client’s point of  view  in regards to his upbringing. He realizes it has affected in him  in some  way, as he has obtained psychotherapy in the past. I would want  to know  if he has ever spoken to his father about this and if his  father has  ever apologized for his actions. 

Questions for family

I  would want to talk with his mother to ask her how he did as a  child in  school and at home in regards to schoolwork, chores and would  want to  know if he had friends. Although  social problems are not part  of the diagnostic criteria for ADHD, the  peer relationship difficulties  faced by youth with this disorder are  profound (Hoza, 2007)

Diagnostics & Exams

A  full psychiatric evaluation which would include the Adult  Self-Report  Scale (ASRS). ASRS was been developed by the World Health  Organization  to determine if an individual (adult) may have ADHD. The  scale is made  up of 6 questions, and if a client has at least 4 of 6  symptoms, there  may need to be a diagnosis of ADHD made by a  professional (ADDA, 2018). Seay  et al. (2009) suggests the PMHNP should  utilize intelligence test,  broad-spectrum scales, tests of specific  abilities, and brain scans to  confirm the diagnosis and to rule out  other disabilities, autism,  auditory processing disorders or mood  disorders. In addition, a full medical work-up by a PCP in order to rule  out other medical conditions that could present similarly to ADHD. 

Differential DX

General Anxiety Disorder: The  patient exhibits symptoms of  generalized anxiety disorder, DSM-5 300.02  (F14.1). He has had the  symptoms for greater than six months with the  symptoms being severe  enough to interfere with the patient’s daily  functioning. The patient  complains of feels of worry that is difficult  to control, irritability,  restlessness, difficulty concentrating and  feeling on edge. The  patient symptoms have not been linked to a physical  condition or to  substance use (Reynolds & Kamphaus,2013).

ADHD:  client consistently complains of feeling tense, irritable, and  anxious  (Stahl Online, 2019).  Questions arise once the general  anxiety symptoms  are resolved and the client is left feeling  hyperactive, inattentive,  and the inability to focus (Stahl Online).

Post-Traumatic  Stress Disorder: The client’s diagnosis of anxiety  may have been  related to underlying issues related to a traumatic event  that he  experienced as a child. The client’s father was verbally  abusive to him  and was an alcoholic. It is a possibility that the  client’s issues could  have some relations to previous exposure as a  child. Post-Traumatic  Stress Disorder is a serious condition that can  occur in clients who  have experienced various incidents including abuse  (PTSD, 2018).

Medications

The  case states by year six the client has failed to achieve  remission on  an SSRI, a 5-HT1A receptor partial agonist, an  antihistamine anxiolytic  and an SGRI (Stahl Online, 2019).

Based on the pharmacological agents, I would select either  Cymbalta  60mg or Effexor XR 150mg.  Cymbalta did illicit a response,  but side  effects prevented the escalation of the dosage.  Augmenting  with  guanfacine an alpha-adrenergic agonist proved to be the therapy  that  elicited remission for this client.

Lessons Learned

I  learned to always consider additional differential diagnosis and   evaluate and re-evaluate every situation separately to be sure of the   correct diagnosis.  Patient’s  often have comorbid diagnosis and  treating both is vital to a  successful outcome for the patient.  Symptoms of mental illness change  overtime making continued care  necessary for the patient. The provider  must always be approachable and  helpful for the client to feel  comfortable in his/her presence. 

                                                References

Attention Deficit Disorder Association. (2018). Adult ADHD Test. Retrieved from https://add.org/adhd-test/

Generalized Anxiety Disorder. (2018). Anxiety and Depression Association of America. Retrieved from https://adaa.org/understanding-anxiety/generalized-anxiety-disorder-gad

Posttraumatic Stress Disorder. (2018). Anxiety and Depression Association of America. Retrieved from https://adaa.org/understanding-anxiety/posttraumatic-stress-disorder-ptsd

Seay, B., McCarthy, L. F., and Williams, P. (2009). Your complete ADHD/ADD diagnosis guide.

            Retrieved from https://www.additudemag.com/adhd-testing-diagnosis-guide/

Stahl, S. M. (2013). Stahl’s essential psychopharmacology: Neuroscientific basis and practical

            Applications (4th ed.). New York, NY: Cambridge University Press.

Stralen, J. W. (2016). Emotional dysregulation in children with attention-deficit/hyperactive disorder.

            Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder. 8(4). p. 175-187. Retrieved from

            https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC5110580/

Hoza  B, Mrug S, Gerdes AC, Bukowski WM, Kraemer HC, Wigal T, et al.  What  aspects of peer relationships are impaired in children with   attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder? Journal of Consulting and  Clinical Psychology. 2005b;73:411–423. 

Reynolds, C. & Kampaus, R. (2013). Generalized Anxiety Disorder. Pearson. Retrieved from:

www.images.pearsonclinical.com/images/assets/basc-3/basc3resources/DMS-5_

WE ALL KNOW CLASSWORK IS BORING. THUS, OUR ESSAY HELP SERVICE EXISTS TO HELP STUDENTS WHO ARE OVERWHELMED WITH STUDIES. ORDER YOUR CUSTOM PAPER FOR 20% DISCOUNT. USE CODE SAVE20

Topic 6 DQ 1 and DQ2

These are two discussion questions DQ1 and DQ2 

posts must be at least 150 words and have at least one reference cited for each question. In-text citation, please 

Tutor MUST have a good command of the English language Sources need to be journal/scholarly articles.  

Use only articles that are published between 2015-2018 (except for your theory articles which will be older as you must cite primary sources). 

No textbook or direct quotes 

Please separate the two DQ with their reference page 

DQ 1 

How do servant leaders, as compared with leaders who follow the transformational model of leadership, manage organization dynamics and lead change to ensure the continued success of the stakeholders to be served? 

Is servant leadership or transformational leadership the best approach to these tasks?  

DQ 2 

Considering the various virtues or dimensions of character for a servant leader (e.g., virtue, credibility, trust), how might the application of servant leadership be appraised in a health care setting? 

Is servant leadership, versus transformational leadership, plausible in the health care setting that often depends on a hierarchy of command for the safety of patients?

WE ALL KNOW CLASSWORK IS BORING. THUS, OUR ESSAY HELP SERVICE EXISTS TO HELP STUDENTS WHO ARE OVERWHELMED WITH STUDIES. ORDER YOUR CUSTOM PAPER FOR 20% DISCOUNT. USE CODE SAVE20

Health promotion in minority population

Select an ethnic minority group that is represented in the United   States (American Indian/Alaskan Native, Asian American, Black/African   American, Hispanic/Latino, Native Hawaiian, or Pacific Islander).   Using health information available from Healthy People, the CDC, and   other relevant government websites, analyze the health status for this group.

In a paper of 1,000-1,250 words, compare and contrast the health   status of your selected minority group to the national average.   Include the following: Describe the ethnic minority group selected. Describe the     current health status of this group. How do race and ethnicity     influence health for this group? What are the health     disparities that exist for this group? What are the nutritional     challenges for this group? Discuss the barriers to health     for this group resulting from culture, socioeconomics, education,     and sociopolitical factors. What health promotion     activities are often practiced by this group?   Describe at least one approach using the three levels of health     promotion prevention (primary, secondary, and tertiary) that is     likely to be the most effective in a care plan given the unique     needs of the minority group you have selected. Provide an     explanation of why it might be the most effective choice. What cultural beliefs or practices must be considered when     creating a care plan? What cultural theory or model would be best to     support culturally competent health promotion for this population?   Why?

Cite at least three peer-reviewed or scholarly sources to complete   this assignment. Sources should be published within the last 5 years   and appropriate for the assignment criteria and public health content.

Prepare this assignment according to the guidelines found in the APA   Style Guide, located in the Student Success Center. An abstract is not required.

This assignment uses a rubric. Please review the   rubric prior to beginning the assignment to become familiar with the   expectations for successful completion. 

You are required to submit this assignment to LopesWrite. Please   refer to the directions in the Student Success Center.

WE ALL KNOW CLASSWORK IS BORING. THUS, OUR ESSAY HELP SERVICE EXISTS TO HELP STUDENTS WHO ARE OVERWHELMED WITH STUDIES. ORDER YOUR CUSTOM PAPER FOR 20% DISCOUNT. USE CODE SAVE20

Mental Health Case Study

 

Therapeutic Communication- Case Scenarios

Case #1- The patient was admitted 2 days ago with a diagnosis of cancer. She was informed by her doctor that a course of radiation and chemotherapy was her best option. She became very upset and frightened about the proposed treatment and stated that she wasn’t sure if she would go through with it. The nurse approaches her to discuss how she is feeling today.

Nurse: “How are you doing today, Miss Smith. I was wondering how you were feeling about undergoing radiation and chemotherapy?”

Patient: “I don’t know. I’m not as scared as I was when I got here, but I have a lot of questions about it.”

Nurse: “It sounds like you have given it some thought. I’m sure Dr. Jones could talk with you and answer some of your questions. Would you like to do that?” 

Patient: “I guess so. What do you think?”

Think of a few ways the nurse could respond.

Case #2- An elderly patient is sitting in bed taking a nap. A tray of uneaten food is on the bedside table. The nurse comes into the room.

Think of a few ideas of what the nurse could say to start a therapeutic conversation with this patient.

Nurse: “…………”

Patient: “Oh, don’t bother with me. I don’t have much time left in this world.

And I don’t have much to live for anyway.”

Nurse: Think of a few therapeutic responses.

WE ALL KNOW CLASSWORK IS BORING. THUS, OUR ESSAY HELP SERVICE EXISTS TO HELP STUDENTS WHO ARE OVERWHELMED WITH STUDIES. ORDER YOUR CUSTOM PAPER FOR 20% DISCOUNT. USE CODE SAVE20

Advance Nursing (MSN) and their role in policymaking to improve LGBTQ health

  

1. Describe the interdependence of politics, including diverse perspectives, shared values, and the passage of health care reform.

2. Describe the legal and judicial system and the role of the courts in shaping policy.

3. Describe three political actions nurses could take to strengthen their role in policymaking as it relates to advocacy for improving LGBTQ health. Correlate your discussion to the AACN MSN Essentials, identify one that most pertains to this topic and elaborate on your selection.

must be minimum 250 words, references must be cited in APA format, and must include minimum of 2 scholarly resources published within the past 5-7 years.

WE ALL KNOW CLASSWORK IS BORING. THUS, OUR ESSAY HELP SERVICE EXISTS TO HELP STUDENTS WHO ARE OVERWHELMED WITH STUDIES. ORDER YOUR CUSTOM PAPER FOR 20% DISCOUNT. USE CODE SAVE20

Discussion: Examning Nursing Specialty

Discussion: Examining Nursing Specialties

You have probably seen one or more of the many inspirational posters about decisions. A visual such as a forked road or a street sign is typically pictured, along with a quote designed to inspire.

Decisions are often not so easily inspired. Perhaps you discovered this when choosing a specialty within the MSN program. This decision is a critical part of your plan for success, and you no doubt want to get it right. This is yet another area where your network can help, as well as other sources of information that can help you make an informed choice.

To Prepare: Reflect on your decision to pursue a specialty within the MSN program, including your professional and academic goals as they relate to your program/specialization. (specialty: Mental Health Nurse Practitioner)

Post an explanation of your choice of a nursing specialty within the program. Describe any difficulties you had (or are having) in making your choice, and the factors that drove/are driving your decision. Identify at least one professional organization affiliated with your chosen specialty and provide details on becoming a member.

WE ALL KNOW CLASSWORK IS BORING. THUS, OUR ESSAY HELP SERVICE EXISTS TO HELP STUDENTS WHO ARE OVERWHELMED WITH STUDIES. ORDER YOUR CUSTOM PAPER FOR 20% DISCOUNT. USE CODE SAVE20

Community Assessment, Analysis, Diagnosis, Plan, and Evaluation

 I need a quality paper, this is instruction”

This activity is intended for undergraduate nursing students. In this activity, students will observe, think critically about, and report health issues in diverse community environments.

Community health nursing can improve access to care for the most vulnerable and hard-to-reach groups in any country. The community health nurse should combine knowledge of major indicators of health, social factors that contribute to declining health status, and public programs designed to address problems of health care. Efforts should encompass all levels of prevention (primary, secondary, tertiary) and should address the needs of the individual, family, aggregate, and community.

A Formal APA Paper  

Utilizing the 8 Sentinel City subsystems you have been working on throughout this class(education, economics, transpotation, politics,….), write your assessment, analysis, nursing diagnosis, plan, and evaluation method (per the rubric) in APA format.   

You do not need an abstract. The order of the paper is as follows:

 the title page, the body of the paper (4-5 pages), a reference page. 

You need to submit to Safe-Assign without the title page, or the reference page to get your originality score.

WE ALL KNOW CLASSWORK IS BORING. THUS, OUR ESSAY HELP SERVICE EXISTS TO HELP STUDENTS WHO ARE OVERWHELMED WITH STUDIES. ORDER YOUR CUSTOM PAPER FOR 20% DISCOUNT. USE CODE SAVE20

Article Summary/ 3 full pages summary / MLA format/ Nutrition Article Summary

Read the article and prepare a written summary of at least 3 double spaced typewritten pages.  Summaries should be submitted through Canvas. Your summary should include your opinion on the content or outcomes of your article. Summaries should be written in MLA format to include the work cited (which would only be one, your article).   

Your opinion should be at least ½ a page. Do not cut and paste material from your article to your summary. Cutting and pasting will result in point deductions and may result in a 0 for this project.

The title of the article: Average Pro-anabolic Nutrients Is Overridden by High Protein and Energy Intake in the Muscle-Tendon Unit Characteristics of Middle- to Older-Aged Adults

Source of my article: Tomlinson, David J., et al.” Journal of Nutrition, vol. 148, no. 11, Nov. 2018, pp. 1776–1785. EBSCOhost, doi:10.1093/jn/nxy185 Full text from https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC6209810/pdf/nxy185.pdf. 

WE ALL KNOW CLASSWORK IS BORING. THUS, OUR ESSAY HELP SERVICE EXISTS TO HELP STUDENTS WHO ARE OVERWHELMED WITH STUDIES. ORDER YOUR CUSTOM PAPER FOR 20% DISCOUNT. USE CODE SAVE20